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Someone asked for the source on endive and dandelion -- both had just always been the translations I'd heard for ulshin and charchavnin, respectively. I've also heard theme mentioned in some contemporary halacha sheets, though I don't remember which ones off the top of my head.
Ulshin=endive is found the R' Obadiah miBartenurah commentary on the Mishnah, among many other sources. (Later, the Tiferes Yisroel also quotes it)
I'm still trying to track down who in particular translates dandelion. (Endive was easy, as the Arabic and Yiddish names for it all sound like 'endive'; that's not the case with dandelion.)
And while I'm at it: how far do we want to rock the boat here? Somebody on the matza page felt like pointing out that oats are iffy, based on recent research. Do we do this for horseradish, for which this is the case, as well? I say leave the poor vegetable (and all our bubbes and zaydes who ate it for Pesach) alone.
— Preceding unsigned comment added by 62.189.26.100 (talk) 16:00, 2006 July 27 (UTC)
Thank you for you sourcing work, I look forward to seeing more. General on wikipedia opinions by notable people are mentioned. If they are minority opinion they are expressed as such. Extreme minority opinion are not mentioned at all. Still it is mainstream pouplar tradition among all jews that horseradish is maror. Anyone who disagrees with that, if they are mentioned at all, would be clearly stated a minority opinion. Jon51319:08, 27 July 2006 (UTC)[reply]
Good point; okay, leave it for now. Just felt obliged to comment that I don't think Sephardim ever used it. (You may call me a self-hating Ashkenazi if you wish.) :)
I changed the bit that says that Jarred Horseradish does not count to many hold as such. It is not a universal belief and the vast majority of Conservative and Reform Jews used the canned variety of chrain, whether beet-filled or beet-less. Chag Kasher V'Sameach, --Valley2city₪‽06:58, 2 April 2007 (UTC)[reply]
It is not a matter of whether or not one believes that preserved chrain is acceptable for use as maror at the Seder. Traditional Jewish sources, such as the Mishnah, the Gemara, and numerous other foundational documents state that it is not acceptable. If you wish to provide a source for the variance of certain Jewish groups or simply say that they do as they feel, that is your perrogative. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Yosefsimcha (talk • contribs) 12:41, 28 September 2010 (UTC)[reply]
No, it is related to the Hebrew masculine adjective mar מַר (or the feminine adjective mara מָרָה), meaning bitter. I have so indicated in the article. Kepipesiom (talk) 02:33, 13 February 2012 (UTC)[reply]
